Then, one would think that with any property registered to said PERSON (as long as no previous debt is owing on said property) would be assets that could NOT be sold or have the legal title switched UNLESS the corporation got their money first. If that is the case then it sounds a little more straight foreword. Also is the debt owing, by the PERSON to the corporation, ( assuming one MUST have a tangible reason for a lien) created by the purchasing of the shares?
Printed copy · Anthology Volume 4, page 584Printed copy from The Tender For Law Anthology, Volume 4, page 584 (printed 13 June 2014). Added by this site; not part of the Facebook export.